Internal Medicine · Year 3 · from Internal Medicine

Case 1: Deep Vein Thrombosis

Patient Presentation

A 45-year-old woman presents with 3 days of progressive left leg swelling and pain. She returned from a 12-hour flight from Europe 5 days ago. She has a history of obesity and recently started oral contraceptive pills for menorrhagia. She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, or hemoptysis.

Vital Signs

  • Blood Pressure: 132/78 mmHg
  • Heart Rate: 82 bpm
  • Respiratory Rate: 16/min
  • Oxygen Saturation: 98% on room air
  • Temperature: 37.2°C

Physical Examination

  • General: Well-appearing, mild discomfort
  • Cardiovascular: Regular rhythm, no murmurs
  • Pulmonary: Clear
  • Left lower extremity: Swelling from ankle to mid-thigh, 4 cm circumference difference at calf, warmth, erythema, tenderness along medial thigh
  • Right lower extremity: Normal

Initial Workup

  • D-dimer: 2,450 ng/mL (normal <500)
  • CBC: Normal
  • Creatinine: 0.8 mg/dL
  • Compression ultrasound: Non-compressible left common femoral and popliteal veins

Clinical Image

Figure 1: Compression ultrasound demonstrating non-compressibility of the femoral vein (arrow), diagnostic of deep vein thrombosis. Normal veins completely compress with probe pressure.

Image Source: Educational illustration for teaching purposes.

Questions

  1. What is this patient's Wells score for DVT and pretest probability?
  • A) Low probability
  • B) Moderate probability (Wells 1-2)
  • C) High probability (Wells ≥3)
  • D) Cannot calculate
  1. What is the role of D-dimer in DVT diagnosis?
  • A) Confirms DVT when positive
  • B) Rules out DVT when negative in low/moderate pretest probability patients
  • C) Should be obtained in all patients
  • D) Not useful in DVT evaluation
  1. What is the appropriate initial anticoagulation for this patient?
  • A) Warfarin alone
  • B) DOAC (rivaroxaban, apixaban) or LMWH followed by warfarin
  • C) Aspirin only
  • D) IVC filter placement
  1. What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?
  1. What are this patient's risk factors for VTE?

Answers

  1. C) High probability (Wells ≥3) - Wells criteria for DVT:
  • Active cancer: 0
  • Paralysis/immobilization: 0
  • Bedridden >3 days or surgery <12 weeks: 0
  • Tenderness along deep veins: 1
  • Entire leg swollen: 1
  • Calf swelling >3 cm: 1
  • Pitting edema: 1
  • Collateral superficial veins: 0
  • Alternative diagnosis as likely: 0
  • Total: 4 (≥3 = high probability)
  1. B) Rules out DVT when negative in low/moderate pretest probability patients - D-dimer has high negative predictive value. A negative D-dimer in low/moderate probability patients effectively excludes DVT. High pretest probability patients should proceed directly to imaging.
  1. B) DOAC (rivaroxaban, apixaban) or LMWH followed by warfarin - Options include:
  • DOACs (rivaroxaban, apixaban) as monotherapy - preferred for most patients
  • LMWH bridge to warfarin (target INR 2-3)
  • LMWH alone (preferred in cancer-associated thrombosis)
  • DOACs are contraindicated with estrogen-containing contraceptives should be discontinued
  1. Recommended duration of anticoagulation:
  • This is a provoked DVT (long-haul flight + OCPs)
  • Standard treatment: 3 months
  • After 3 months, reassess: if provoking factors removed (stopped OCPs, no further immobilization), can discontinue
  • If unprovoked or ongoing risk factors, consider extended anticoagulation
  • Proximal DVT has higher recurrence risk than distal DVT
  1. Risk factors for VTE in this patient:
  • Prolonged immobilization (12-hour flight)
  • Oral contraceptive pills (estrogen increases clotting factors)
  • Obesity (inflammatory state, venous stasis)
  • These are transient/reversible risk factors
  • Counsel on VTE prevention for future travel (hydration, mobilization, compression stockings, consider prophylactic LMWH for high-risk patients)

All cases for this lecture as Markdown